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✅Sleeping less than 6 hours per night increases your risk of a heart attack by 200–300%.
14/10/2025

✅Sleeping less than 6 hours per night increases your risk of a heart attack by 200–300%.

Chronic stress & poor sleep raise your risk for heart attack and cancer. Learn 5 science-backed ways to sleep better & protect your health.

09/01/2023

A 41-year-old man has a history of drinking 1 to 2 liters of whisky per day for the past 20 years. He has had numerous episodes of nausea and vomiting in the past 5 years. He now experiences a bout of prolonged vomiting, followed by massive hematemesis. On physical examination his vital signs are: T 36.9°C, P 110/min, RR 26/min, and BP 80/40 mm Hg lying down. His heart has a regular rate and rhythm with no murmurs and his lungs are clear to auscultation. There is no abdominal tenderness or distension and bowel sounds are present. His stool is negative for occult blood. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A Hiatal hernia

B Esophageal laceration

C Esophageal pulsion diverticulum

D Barrett esophagus

E Esophageal squamous cell carcinoma

F Esophageal stricture

Source: Med Utah

30/12/2022

Tricyclic Antidepressants

Describe the mechanism of tricyclic antidepressants.
- Inhibit reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, increasing availability of monoamines in the synapse

Name 7 tricyclic antidepressants and their subcategories.
- Tertiary amines: amitriptyline, imipramine, clomipramine, doxepin; secondary amines: nortriptyline, desipramine.

What TCA may be used to treat insomnia?
- Doxepin

What are 2 clinical indications for use of imipramine?
- Enuresis; panic disorder

What TCA has the least anticholinergic side effects?
- Desipramine

What TCA is least likely to cause orthostatic hypotension?
- Nortriptyline

The mainstay of treatment for TCA overdose is _____.
- IV sodium bicarbonate

Name 2 tetracyclic antidepressants.
- Amoxapine; maprotiline

What are the "3 C's" of TCA side effects?
- Cardiotoxicity
- Convulsions
- Coma

What tricyclic antidepressant is preferred for use in the elderly population?
- Nortriptyline, as it has the fewest side effects

TCA – absolute contraindication to TCA is glaucoma – can exacerbate closed angle – decrease reabsorption; 10-
15% of glaucoma is narrow angle.

Source: https://www.auntminnie.com/index.aspx?sec=ser&sub=def&pag=dis&ItemID=52189NCBI and GoogleEvaluation criteria for...
14/12/2022

Source: https://www.auntminnie.com/index.aspx?sec=ser&sub=def&pag=dis&ItemID=52189
NCBI and Google

Evaluation criteria for a good lateral chest projection

All of the lung fields, from apices to the costophrenic angles, should be fully visualized.

The arms should not be superimposed over portions of the lung fields.

Sharp radiographic outline -- the outline of the diaphragm and lung markings --should be sharp. This can be accomplished by ensuring no motion or breathing is taking place at the time of exposure.

No rotation (true lateral projection). The ribs should be superimposed posterior to the vertebral column without any separation of the right and left posterior ribs and both costophrenic angles. However, in broad-shouldered patients, separation of the posterior ribs by 1 cm, because of the divergence of the x-ray beam, is unavoidable. Moreover, the lateral aspect of the sternum forms the anterior border, and no ribs should be projecting in front of the sternum.

No tilt -- thoracic intervertebral spaces and intervertebral foramina should be open, except in patients with thoracic deformities. Tilt, if present, may be evident of closed disk spaces of the thoracic vertebra.

Hilum should be approximately in the center of the radiograph.

NORMAL LANDMARKS
The fissures are important landmarks on a lateral CXR, becoming visible when the X-ray beam passes parallel to them. The oblique fissure begins posteriorly at T4/5 level, passing through the hilum. The left is steeper and finishes 5 cm behind the costophrenic angle whereas the right ends just behind the angle. The horizontal fissure runs anteriorly from the hilum separating the right upper lobe from the middle lobe. On the left there is no horizontal fissure.

Both hemidiaphragms should be visible, silhouetted by the lung air against the fluid-density of the abdominal contents. The anterior end of the left hemidiaphragm may be lost against the heart. The diaphragms can be distinguished from each other if there is clearly gastric air under one, or if one can be seen to be inserted into the magnified ribs further from the X-ray plate.

Vertebral bodies become darker as they proceed caudally (Figure 1) until they reach the diaphragm—because there is more soft tissue and less lung tissue at the apex but more lung tissue and less soft tissue at the bases.

The retrocardiac and retrosternal spaces are normally seen as dark areas about equal in size and lucency.

Mycobacterium Marinum Cellulitis and Variants
06/12/2022

Mycobacterium Marinum Cellulitis and Variants

Treatment of Gout
06/12/2022

Treatment of Gout

06/12/2022
Differential Diagnosis of  Exanthematous Drug Eruptions Cutaneous adverse drug reactions are undesirable changes in the ...
06/12/2022

Differential Diagnosis of Exanthematous Drug Eruptions

Cutaneous adverse drug reactions are undesirable changes in the structure or function of the skin, appendages, or mucous membranes resulting from the use of medications at normally recommended doses. Drug eruptions are common, affecting approximately 2% to 3% of hospitalized patients.1, 2, 3 The morphology of these eruptions may be exanthematous, urticarial, papulosquamous, pustular, vesiculobullous, or granulomatous. In addition, the eruptions may sometimes present with annular, polycyclic, or polymorphous configurations.

The clinical presentations of drug eruptions are highly variable. Most drug eruptions are mild, self-limited, and usually resolve after the offending agent has been discontinued; however, approximately 1 in 1,000 hospitalized patients may have severe cutaneous adverse reactions (SCARs), which are potentially lethal adverse drug reactions that involve the skin and mucous membranes and may also damage internal organs.4 Prompt recognition of the alarming signs of SCARs and providing adequate treatment for them may thus be life-saving.

When a patient has a new-onset widespread eruption (exanthem), an accurate history and a high index of suspicion regarding the possibility of an offending drug is vital for making a correct diagnosis. A thorough history taking should be performed, with the following questions and steps being asked and taken:


When did the onset of the eruption occur? Establishing a chronologic relationship between drug exposure and the onset of the eruption is helpful for the identification of the culprit drug.


What are the sign and symptoms of the eruption? Or is it asymptomatic? Is it itchy or painful?


Are there systemic symptoms and signs (eg, fever, fatigue, sore throat)?


A detailed drug history, including all prescribed and nonprescribed medications (eg, over-the-counter tablets, herbal medications, or topical preparations) taken within the last month, should be obtained.


What medications is the patient taking, and for what is each medication? Ask to actually see the medications or a list of the patient's prescriptions to be sure of the type or types of medications being taken (eg, some patients may take oral anticonvulsants due to chronic neuralgia and may erroneously describe these medications as “analgesics” or “painkillers”).


How long has the patient been taking each medication, and how often does the patient take it?


Does the patient have any known drug allergies? If so, what was the allergic reaction? Many patients mistakenly consider their previous nonallergic adverse drug reactions (eg, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea) to be the result of a “drug allergy.”

It is very important to know that common exanthematous drug reactions can occur as late as 2 weeks after a medication has been discontinued.5 The time between the culprit drug exposure and the onset of a SCAR may be even longer. For example, Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) often begin between 4 and 28 days after the culprit drug administration.6 Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS) usually has an even longer latency period, developing between 3 and 8 weeks after the drug exposure.

https://www.sciencedirect.com/science/article/abs/pii/S0738081X21002662

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